I'm only just past the basics, but I've been playing around with this a bit. (Okay, a lot; it's driving me nuts!) Please forgive my arrogance, but is it possible that the last part of your translation may not be completely right?:
"to show that" is an indirect statement, and there's a relative clause within an I.S., which would account for the subjunctive. That it's an I.S. would make "se videre" "he sees" (acc. + inf.).
As for the relative clause, IF I'm right about that, then "quod visus videat" means "that which sees sights."
And I came up with:
"Secondly, he is presenting to both possibilities....two explanations to show that he sees that which sees (sights)." (Actually, "that man sees....")
"ibi si autem et primo inducit": "if then/there, moreover, he also first introduces..."?? Forget it.
If it helps, here's the relevant section in Aristotle. It's in Part 2, I think in the second paragraph:
http://classics.mit.edu/Aristotle/soul.3.iii.html
I hope I haven't wasted too much of your time. Good luck to you!